Comments on: Journey to .NET 2.0 http://rwandering.net/2005/10/10/journey-to-net-20/ The blogged wandering of Robert W. Anderson Thu, 09 Sep 2010 15:00:33 -0600 hourly 1 http://wordpress.org/?v=3.0.1 By: Trevor Carnahan http://rwandering.net/2005/10/10/journey-to-net-20/comment-page-1/#comment-35 Trevor Carnahan Wed, 18 Jan 2006 16:45:58 +0000 http://rwandering.net/?p=58#comment-35 Thank you for the response Robert. You confirmed my understanding of how the clr works. And it's nice to know that other professionals are using the binary assembly reference approach for legacy 1.1 assemblies in their 2.0 applications as well. Fortunately, there shouldn't be any compatibility issues for our application as it will only be used to execute stored procedures in the normal fashion. Thanks again. Thank you for the response Robert. You confirmed my understanding of how the clr works. And it’s nice to know that other professionals are using the binary assembly reference approach for legacy 1.1 assemblies in their 2.0 applications as well.

Fortunately, there shouldn’t be any compatibility issues for our application as it will only be used to execute stored procedures in the normal fashion.

Thanks again.

]]> By: Robert W. Anderson http://rwandering.net/2005/10/10/journey-to-net-20/comment-page-1/#comment-34 Robert W. Anderson Wed, 18 Jan 2006 03:01:57 +0000 http://rwandering.net/?p=58#comment-34 Thanks for the comment / question. The short answer is that: <ul> <li>You have to run your ASP.NET 2 app in the 2.0 CLR. </li> <li>Your 1.1 assembly (the data provider) will run in the 2.0 CLR. This should be OK. There is a chance that it has some explicit 1.1 dependencies that might be a problem -- this is rare, but possible. </li> <li>You cannot mix CLRs in a single process, so to load the assembly in .NET 1.1 you would have to use remoting or some other mechanism for loading your 1.1 assembly in a .NET 1.1 CLR. I only mention this because it is possible though probably not necessary nor worthwhile.</li> </ul> We do run .NET 1.1 assemblies in .NET 2.0 as a matter of course, actually. I've seen no problem to date. Cheers, Robert Thanks for the comment / question.

The short answer is that:

  • You have to run your ASP.NET 2 app in the 2.0 CLR.
  • Your 1.1 assembly (the data provider) will run in the 2.0 CLR. This should be OK. There is a chance that it has some explicit 1.1 dependencies that might be a problem — this is rare, but possible.
  • You cannot mix CLRs in a single process, so to load the assembly in .NET 1.1 you would have to use remoting or some other mechanism for loading your 1.1 assembly in a .NET 1.1 CLR. I only mention this because it is possible though probably not necessary nor worthwhile.

We do run .NET 1.1 assemblies in .NET 2.0 as a matter of course, actually. I’ve seen no problem to date.

Cheers,
Robert

]]> By: Trevor Carnahan http://rwandering.net/2005/10/10/journey-to-net-20/comment-page-1/#comment-33 Trevor Carnahan Wed, 18 Jan 2006 01:18:02 +0000 http://rwandering.net/?p=58#comment-33 Some great posts in here. I've got a question for you, and I'm hoping you get get me pointed in the right direction. I am currently architecting a new Asp.Net 2.0 application. I need to rely on a. ADO.Net 1.1 data provider for my legacy database (Sybase ASE 12.5). When I create a binary reference in my 2.0 project on a 1.1 assembly what is the internal clr result? Will the 1.1 assembly run in the 2.0 clr? Can I programattically as the clr to load it in a 1.1 clr if it available? Is there any extra marshalling required if I take that approach? This post gives me the impression that you have had to deal with some of these kinds of scenarios and might be able to point me in the right direction. Thanks in advance! Some great posts in here. I’ve got a question for you, and I’m hoping you get get me pointed in the right direction.

I am currently architecting a new Asp.Net 2.0 application. I need to rely on a. ADO.Net 1.1 data provider for my legacy database (Sybase ASE 12.5). When I create a binary reference in my 2.0 project on a 1.1 assembly what is the internal clr result? Will the 1.1 assembly run in the 2.0 clr? Can I programattically as the clr to load it in a 1.1 clr if it available? Is there any extra marshalling required if I take that approach?

This post gives me the impression that you have had to deal with some of these kinds of scenarios and might be able to point me in the right direction.

Thanks in advance!

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